Learn: Written Examination on 10/03/2019(Sunday) for the Post of Lecturers

Name of the Organization: State Selection Board, Department of Higher Education, Odisha

Name of the Exam: Lecturer
The release of Answer Key: Available Soon
Date of Exam : 10th March 2019
Category: Question and Answer Key
Official Website : www.ssbodisha.nic.in

1. Who has said that “Education is the dynamic side of Philosophy”?

(A) Adam
(B) Dewey
(C) Russell

(D) Ross

2. Ontology on Cosmology are the sub- branches of which branch of Philosophy?

(A) Metaphysics
(B) Epistemology
(C) Axiology
(D) None of these

3. Which branch of Philosophy emphasizes on inductive and deductive thinking?
(A) Metaphysics
(B) Epistemology
(C) Axiology
(D) None of these

4. What is focused in Axiology as a branch of Philosophy?
(A) Human senses
(B) Intuition
(C) Ethics
(D) values

5. What does Pragmatism emphasize?
(A) Spiritual Truth
(B) Universal Truth
(C) Changeable Truth
(D) Permanent Truth

6. Which one of the following is not related to the critical nature of Educational Philosophy?
(A) It gives an overview of the whole world
(B) It establishes consistency
(C) In inspires logical reasoning
(D) It presents a unity of outlook

7. Which is not the nature of Philosophy?
(A) It is a science of knowledge
(B) It is a planned attempt to search [or the truth
(C) It is a collective ensemble of various viewpoints
(D) It is neither based on experience nor on analysis

8. Which of the following methods proceeds from particular to general and from empirical to rational?
(A) Intuition method
(B) Experimental method
(C) Deductive method
(D) Inductive method

9. What does Epistemology deal with as a branch of Philosophy?
(A) Aims of Education
(B) Aesthetics
(C) Method of teaching-learning
(D) Logic

10. Which School of Philosophy believes that education is a continuous reconstruction of experiences?

(A) Existentialism’
(B) Pragmatism
(C) Idealism
(D) Vedanta

11 What is the central tenet of Idealism?
(A) The physical world has no inherent meaning outside of human existence

(B) Only those things that are experienced are real
(C) Reality exists independent of the human mind

(D) Ideas are the only true reality, the only thing worth knowing

12. Which of the following books learning methods is written by Plato on education?

(A) Clitophon

(B) Allegory of the Cave

(D) Emile

13. According to Idealists, must be available to whom?
(A) The poor section of the society only

(B) All individuals irrespective their beliefs and values

14. According to Pragmatists, school experiences should be based on what?

(A) Immediate needs of the society

(B) Demands of the parents and guardians
(C) Present needs and future expectations of the child

(D) Rules and regulations of the school

15. Which of the following teaching learning method is popularized by?

(A) Project Method
(B) Play-way Method

16. Who has said “Education is the manifestation of perfection already in
men”?
(A) John Dewey
(B) Sri Aurobindo
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Vivekananda

17. According to Gandhi’s Basic Education, schools should focus on which of the following?
(A) Development of reading skills from the primary level

(B) Teaching of memorization techniques

(D) Teaching of useful crafts from the beginning of study and training

18 . According to John Dewey, students must learn by which way?
(A) Engaging in debate and discussion to enhance knowledge
(B) interacting with their environment in order to adapt and learn
(C) Using drill and practice methods to develop concrete understanding
(D) Developing strong knowledge through memorization

19. Who has given the concept of integral education?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Sri Aurobindo
(C) R. N. Tagore
(D) Swami Vivekananda

20. What is the primary objective of Bodhisattva?
(A) To live a life or piety
(B) Educate the masses about the teachings of Buddha
(C) Develop the knowledge of suffering and misery
(D) Sacrifice one’s life for the welfare of others

21. Which School of Philosophy emphasizes on observation and learning by experience?
(A) Idealism
(B) Existentialism
(C) Realism
(D) Pragmatism

22. Which School of Philosophy emphasizes on realization of truth, beauty and goodness?
(A) Idealism
(B) Existentialism
(C) Realism
(D) Pragmatism

23. According to Dewey, which one of the following is not a principle of curriculum construction?

(A)Utility
(B) Stiffness

(C)Close to life

(D) Experiential

24. Which School of Philosophy believes that ‘self-knowledge is the key of all knowledge’?

(A)Idealism

(B)Pragmatism

(C)Realism

(D) Existentialism

25. ‘The world is the creation of the mind, not natural phenomena’. This is the metaphysics of which philosophy?
(A) Existentialism
(B) Idealism

(D) Realism

26. Which School of Philosophy emphasizes the method of integration?
(A) Existentialism
(B) Realism
(C) Pragmatism
(D) Idealism

27. Which School of Philosophy regards the universe as consisting of two realities — consciousness and matter?
(A) Sankhya
(B) Buddhism
(C) Jainism
(D) Vedanta

28. Whose idea was that education should be self-supporting?
(A) Vivekananda
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) Sri Aurovindo

29. In which of the following philosophies Vivekananda’s Philosophy is rooted in?

(A) Buddhism

(B) Sankhya
(C) Buddhism
(D) Vedanta

30. What is the aim of Education Sociology according to the Existentialism?
(A) Synthesis of man and nature
(B) Humanitarian and humanist self-realization

(D) Learning vocational activities

31. Which of the following philosophies affirms that those who gain the knowledge of the Self attain Kaivalya, they become liberated and become Brahman?

(A)Sankhya

(B) Buddhism

(D) Jainism

32. According to which School of Philosophy of Education, exaltation of individual’s personality is a function of Education?
(A) Idealism

(B) Realism

(D) Existentialism

33. Which of the following philosophies is most tilted to individualism?

(A) Jainism

(B) Sankhya

(D) Vednta

34. Which one of the following best explains the concept of Sociology of Education?
(A) A surplus branch of general Sociology
(B) Sociological study of educational institutions

(D) Sociological case studies of educational institutions

35. What does Sociology of Education study?
(A) The effects of social institutions and individual experiences on education and its

(B) The effects of the education system on the society
(C) The effects of classroom and peer interaction on a child’s growth

(D) The effects of schools on the children

36. Which is the most suitable aim of Education in sociological perspectives?
(A) Moral development

(B) Social stratification
(C) Social change
(D) Socialization

37. What does Educational Sociology as a science attempt to?
(A) Apply educational ideas and practices in society
(B) Apply the principles of Sociology to the field of Education
(C) Apply the ideas of society in the field of Education
(D) Apply the ideas of Philosophy in the field of Education

38. Who is considered as the father of Educational Sociology?
(A) Mark Weber
(B) KarlMarx
(C) George Payne
(D) W.Taylor

39. Which of the following connotes the significant alteration over time in behaviour patterns and cultural values and norms?
(A) Educational change
(B) Social change
(C) Social mobility
(D) Communal change

40. What does social control denote?
(A) The mechanisms by which society ensures progression and growth
(B) The mechanisms by which society refuses to change its behaviour and values
(C) The mechanisms by which society changes its behavkur and values

(D) The mechanisms by whic society ensures conformity t its norms

41. What is the purpose of democrati education in a society?
(A) To instill the. values o cooperation fairness anc justice into the students
(B) The enable students to work on their own and be independ en from others
(C) To encourage students to revol and protests against authority
(D) To spread nationalistic ideas and preservation of the nation’s borders

42. Which of the following implies the process of interaction and integration among the people, companies; and governments of different nations?
(A) Liberalization
(B) Globalization
(C) Urbanization
(D) Westernization

43, From which date the RTE Act, 2009 has been enforced in Odisha
(A)1st January, 2010
(B)1st February, 2010 ‘,.
(C) 1st March, 2010
(D) 1stApril; 2010

44. What does cultural lag refers to?
(A) The phenomenon that occurs when changes in material culture is slower than the change in intellectual growth of the society

(B) The phenomenon that occurs when changes in the subc ulture is slower compared to the change in culture
(C) The phenomenon that occurs when people in a soceity fail to catch up with the change in the culture of the soceity
(D) The phenomenon that occur when changes in material culture occur at faster rate than the changes in non-material culture

45. Nhich of the following is a true statement?
(A) Education is fundamental medium Qf social change
(B) Social change is caused by education only
(C) Education system does not change with social change
(D) Education system is sterile of social systems

46. Which of the following is not the function of education in cultural perspective?

(A) Conservation
(B) Transmission

(D) Seclusion

47. What is social mobility?
(A) Change in social status of human
(B) Change in social roles of human
(C) Change in social grouping of human
(D) Change in social institutions followed by human

48. What type of social mobility is more caused by Education?
(A) Horizontal mobility
(B) Downward vertical mobility
(C) Upward vertical mobility
(D) Cross sectional mobility

49. Why should teachers have understanding of the culture?
(A) Education is a process of acculturation
(B) Education is the process of Sanskritization
(C) Education is the process of cultural transmission
(D) Education is the process of cultural distinction

50. What does mobility ethic denote?
(A) Upward mobility is both possible and desirable
(B) Upward mobility is dangerous to social stability
(C) Sanskritization should be prohibited
(D) Sanskritization should be promoted

51. Who has given the concept of cultural lag?

(A) kingsley Davies

(B) Mciver and Page

(D) M.S.Srinivas

52. What is the important outcome of modernization of education in India?

(A) Increase in enrollment of students
(B) Improvement in quality of teaching and learning
(C) Uniformity in syllabi

(D) Uniformity in standards

53. Which of the following is true?

(A) Mobility and urbanization is bringing multilingualism to the classroom (A) J. R. Ross
(B) Urbanization is bringing animosities to the schools
(C) Urbanization in a Indian state like Maharashtra is a big threat in metro cities

(D) Urbanization is a challenge to education system in metro

54. Which one of the following best explains social change? (A) Social change denotes the change in the language of society

(B) Social change is the change of mannerism in the society

(D) Social change is the change which is brought by educational process

55. Which of the following is an element of democratic education?
(A) Regionalism
(B) Communalism
(C) Racism
(D) Secularism

56. Who said “personality is meaningless term apart from the social environment”?
(A) J.R. Ross

(B) R. R. Rusk
(C) John Dewey
(D) S.B.TyIàr

57. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) Both formal and informal education are organized in the society
(B) Only informal education is organized in the society

(C) Formal education is not organized in the society
(D) Both formal and informal education are not organized in the society

58. “Primary function of education is to socialize new generations to overcome their egoism and to become productive members of society.”

(A) Conflict
(B) Marxist

(D) Consensus

59. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden?

(A) Article 19

(B) Article 10

(D) Article 17

60. Who said “education consists of a methodological socialization of young generation”?
(A) Kingsley Davies

(B) Emile Durkheim

C) Maclver and Page

(D) Talcott Parsons

61. What is the most appropriate meaning of institution? (D) 2nd October, 1996
(A) A committee of the experts managing schools

(B) An organization having some established laws and practices

(D) (D) A group of different stake-holders in education

(A) Church

62. Why elementary education is considered as a right of every child in India?
(A) It is a democratic country
(B) It was polling agenda of the government

63. Who is the author of the book of the ‘Deschooling Society’?
(A) Ivan Illich
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Ludwig Wittgenstein
(D) Max Wertheimer

64. From which date the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 came into force in our country?
(A) lst January, 1996
(B) 7th February, 1996
(C) lst April, 1996

(D) 2nd October, 1996

65. Which of the following institution is called ‘miniature of society’ by John Dewy?

(A) Church
(B) Gymnasium
(C) School
(D) University

66. Which one of the following Commissions had originally advocated for Common School system in India

(A) Radhakrishnan
(B) Kothari

(D) Ramamurthy

67. Which of the following best defines Psychology?

(A) Psychology is the science of behaviour and mind

(B) Psychology is the science of body and mind

(D) Psychology is the science of mind and soul

68. Education Psychology is oriented towards what?

(A) Formulation of hypothesis and theories related to educational practice

(B) Application of the principles and techniques of Psychology for quality education

(D) Development of theoretical framework for research

69. Which of the following is not considered as a school of thought in Psychology?

(A) Biological

(B) Behavioral

(B) Principle of individual difference
(C) Principle of proceeding from specific to general response

(D) Principle of integration

71. Which of the following characteristic is not true of divergent thinking?

(A) Flexibility of ideas
(B) Novelty of ideas

72. Which of the following is the best single index for readiness for a given academic task as revealed by Research?
(A) The chronological age
(B) The achievement quotient
(C) The emotional quotient
(D) The Mental Age

73. What is assimilation according to Jean Piaget?
(A) Modification of pre-existing cognitive schemas
(B) Rejection of new information and preserving cognitive schemas
(C) Developing new cognitive schemas
(D) Fitting new information into pre B) Behavioral existing cognitive schemas

74. What is the age range of the concrete operational stage according to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?
(A) Around 0-2 years
(B) Around 2-7 years
(C) Around 7-11 years
(D) 11 years and above

75. What is the most important cognitive outcome of the sensorimotor stage of development according to Piaget?
(A) Language development
(B) Object permanence
(C) Reasoning
(D) Identification

76. What is the most probable cause of learning disability?
(A) Lack of proper caring by parents
(B) Neurological disorder
(C) Emotional disorder
(D) Lack of proper caring by teachers

77. What are the factors responsible for individual difference?
(A) Nature and nurture
(B) Race and parents’ educational background
(C) Heredity and maturation
(D) Environment and maturation

78.Which one of the following is an exarnp1e of intra individual
difference?
(A) Amish failed in both Mathematics and Science

(B) Amish did well in both Mathem atics and Science
(C) Anita did well in Mathematics but failed in Social Science
(D) Anita did well in both Mathematics and Social Science

79. Between whom we can find more similarity in their cognitive abilities?
(A) Cousins
(B) Siblings
(C) Fraternal twins
(D) Identical twins

80. What is the target age range of Kishon Shakti Yojana which is meant for empowerment of adolescent girls?
(A) 13-20 years
(B) 12-l9years
(C) 11-18 years
(D) 10-17 years

81. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of adolescents?
(A) Hero-worshiping
(B) Rapid physical development
(C) Hetero-sexuality
(D) Search for a job

82. Which of the following is the most significant implications of individual difference for organizing educational programmes?
(A) Teacher centric approach
(B) Content centered approach
(C) Examination centered approach
(D) Learner centric approach

83. What should not be followed by a teacher for meeting individual difference in the class?

(A) Teaching at a low level keeping the dullest student in view
(B) Having proper knowledge of the individual’s potentialities
(C) Grouping students according to their ability

(D) Adopting special programmes for individualizing instruction

84. According to Howard Gardner, how many types of intelligence exist?

(A) 5
(B) 7

(D) 12

85. Which one of the following is not a type of intelligence in the list of Gardner?
(A) Logical-mathematical

(B) Existential

86. Who had coined the term intelligence quotient (IQ)?
(A) Alfred Binet

(B) William Stern

(D) Theodore Simon

87. According to Gardner’s classification, with whom interpersonal intelligence can be evident?

(A) Teachers, dancers and pilots

(B) Teachers, social workers and politicians
(C) Social workers, philosophers and sailors
(D) Pilots, dancers and sailors

88. According to Guilford’s latest structure of the intellect, how many independently operating factors are there?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 180
(D) 220

89. What are the three dimensions of Guilford’s structure of intellect?
(A) Operations, content and products

(B) Content, operations and evaluation
(C) Operations, products and evaluation
(D) Operations, content and implication

90. According to Guilford, which of the following abilities are found with creative people?
(A) Fluency, flexibility, originality and elaboration
(B) Flexibility, originality compassion and elaboration

(C) Fluency, operation, originality and elaboration
(D) Fluency, flexibility, operation and communication

91. Which one of the following theories of learning emphasizes on reward and punishment?
(A) Cognitive Learning
(B) Classical Conditioning
(C) Operant Conditioning
(D) Insightful Learning

92. What is the basic reason for meaningful material being learned rapidly?
(A) The learner is less likely to be demotivated
(B) It is related to previous experience of the learner
(C) It permits more effective transfer
(D) It has continuity and meaning inherent in itself

93. Who has proposed chaining as a learning method?

(A) I. Pavlov
(B) B. F. Skinner
(C) B. S. Bloom
(D) R. M. Gagne

94. According to Gagne’s hierarchy theory of learning, what is the order of highest four in the hierarchy?
(A) Problem solving, discrimin ation learning, rule learning and concept learning.
(B) Discrimination learning, rule learning, concept learning and problem solving

(C) Discrimination learning, concept learning, rule learning and problem solving
(D) Rule learning, discrimination learning, concept learning and problem solving

95. A student recognizes his class teacher’s voice. Over the months, he has learned to tell the difference between the voice of his class teacher and the other teachers. Which one of the following processes is at work here?
(A) Stimulus discrimination
(B) Stimulus generalization
(C) Response generalization
(D) Negative reinforcement

96. The Five Factor Model (FFM) of Personality includes which of the- following traits?
(A) Perfectionism, impulsivity, Self-esteem, Harm Avoidance, and Novelty Seeking
(B) Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness and Neuroticism
(C) Sensory Sensitivity, Perfectionism, Alexithymia, Disinhibition and Self-esteem
(D) Obsessionality, Psychotism, Rigidity, Agreeableness, Honesty-Humility, and Disinhibition

97. According to psychoanalytic theory, which is the unconscious part of human mind?
(A) Id

(B) Ego

98. Which of the following does not come under projective techniques of personality assessment?
(A) Situational Test

(B) Rorschach inkblot Test

(D) Sentence Completion Test

99. According to Carl Jung, which of the following are the rational cognitive functions of psyche that act as apparatus for adaptation and orientation?

(A) Sensation and intuition

(B) Thinking and feeling

(D) Intuition and feeling

100. Which one of the following statements is correct relating assessment and evaluation?

(A) Assessment is product oriented but evaluation is process oriented

(B) Assessment is process oriented but evaluation is product oriented

(D) Both are product oriented

101. Which one of the following types of test items comes under the category of supply type?
(A) Alternative response
(B) Multiple choice

102. What are the properties on the basis of which various scales of measurement are differentiated?
(A) Identity, magnitude, equal interval and value of zero

(B) Ordered relationship, magnitude, equal interval and value of zero
(C) Identity, magnitude, equal interval and ratio
(D) Identity, magnitude, equal interval and ordered relationship

103. Which scale of measurement is appropriate to be used for measuring achievement of secondary school students in English?
(A) Ordinal Scale
(B) Ratio Scale
(C) Interval Scale
(D) Nominal Scale

104. Which one of the following statement about types of tests is not correct?

(A) A norm-referenced test can be used by teachers

(B) A standardized test can be modified by teachers

(D) A test can be standardized and criterion-referenced results?

105. A teacher intends to check his/her students’ mastery of specific objectives in Mathematics as he/she has taught. Which type of test the test teacher should use?

(A) Clinical

(B) Norm referenced some particular use
(C) Criterion Referenced

(D) Diagnostic

106. Which of the following is not the aim of continuous and comprehensive evaluation?

(A) To lay emphasis on thought process and de-emphasize memorization
(B) To make the process of teaching and learning a teacher-centered activity

(D) To help develop cognitive, psychomotor and affective skills of students

107. What property of a test is judged through testing consistency of

(A) Accuracy
(B) Objectivity
(C) Validity
(D) Reliability

108. What is not true about the validity of a test?
(A) Validity refers to the interpretation to be made fromth e results of a test
(B) Validity is a general quality of a test
(C) Validity is a mailer of degree
(D) Validity is always specific to

109. Which one of the following is to be followed for assessing the quality of questions during the process of development of a test which includes multiple choice questions?
(A) Task analysis

(B) Content analysis

(D) ltem analysis

110. In the classical model of test validity, which one of the following is not considered as a measure of validity?
(A) Content validity
(B) Construct validity
(C) Criterion related validity
{D) Face validity

111. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Validity is an essential condition for reliability of a test
(B) Reliability is an essential condition for validity of a test
(C) Reliability and validity have no relation
(D) Objectivity is an essential condition for reliability

112. Which of the following is the merit of essay type tests?
(A) Helps in developing logical thinking and critical reasoning
(B) Can be assessed by teachers easily
(C) Requires more time when undertaking the test
(D) Encourages selecting reading

113. Which of the following types of tests is most appropriate for admission into a professional program?

(A) Attitude test
(B) Aptitude test

(D) Clinical test

114. Which of the following methods is most appropriate for assessing the reliability of a questionnaire?
(A) Test-retest
(B) Split-half
(C) Parallel form
(D) Equivalent form

115. Which one of the following feature is true relating portfolio evaluation
(A) Free from bias and subjective
(B) Contains information collect€ confidentially from parents at teachers
(C) Contains samples of the learner’s work and show growth overtime
(D) Preparing and evaluation portfolio is very simple and easy

116. Which of the following has be given importance by NCF, 2005 (regarding examination reforms?
(A) Focusing on knowledge and comprehension domains learning
(B) Making examinations mo flexible and integrating the with class-room life
(C) Implementing a common language for all examination
(D) Confining the examination questions to syllabus content only

117. What is a research design?
(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative’ methods
(C) The style in which the research findings have to be presented
(D) The overall strategy f integration of difference components of the study coherent and logical way

118. Which of the following is a commonly used method in qualitative research?
(A) Experimental
(B) Ex-post-facto
(C) Ethnography
(D) Survey

119. In which type of research it is possible to find out the relationship between two or more variables?

(A) Survey research
(B) Historical

120. Which one of the following best explains the nature of ex-post facto research?
(A) Keeping one variable constant while the other variables are being measured
(B) Observing an existing condition and searching back in time for plausible causal factors
(C) Examining past events and making predictions about the future
(D) Examining present events and making predictions about the future

121. A researcher studies the effect of feedback on students’ achievement.

Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Feedback is independent variable and achievement is dependent variable
(B) Achievement is dependent variable and feedback is dependent variable
(C) Both feedback and achievement are dependent variables
(D) Both feedback and achievement are independent variables

122. What term implies the difference between the population parameter and sample statistic?
(A) Sampling bias
(B) Sampling error
(C) Variance
(D) Sampling technique

123. A researcher selected every 7th individual from a list of 200 populations for his study. What sampling technique was followed by the researcher?
(A) Stratified
(B) Cluster
(C) Systematic
(D) Convenient

124. What is true about sampling error?
(A) There is no relationship between sampling error and sample size
(B) Sampling error decreases when sample size decreases
(C) Sampling error increases when sample size increases
(D) Sampling error decreases when sample size increases

125. What does it show, when two variables are found to be highly correlated?
(A) Changes in one variable are accompanied by predictable changes in the other
(B) They always go together with or without changes
(C) High values on one variable lead to high values on the other variable
(D) High values on one variable lead to low values on the other variable

126. Which of the following is not a threat to internal validity of research?

(A) History
(B) Locality
(C) Attrition
(D) Maturation

127. Which of the following purposes is appropriate for conducting an action research?
(A) Solving a class-room problem
(B) Developing a theory
(C) Writing a thesis
(D) Developing a test

128. Distribution in which values of mean, median and mode are not equal is considered as what kind of distribution?

(A) Normal Distribution

(B) Symmetrical Distribution

(D) Scattered distribution

129. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
(A) Standard Deviation

(B) Average Deviation

(D) Mode

130. What type of error occurs if a null hypothesis is accepted when it is false?

(A) Standard error
(B) Sampling error

131. Which one of the following coefficients of correlation indicates weakest relationship between two variables?

(A) –o.67

(B) 0.45

(D) 0.36

132. Which of the following values indicates the highest level of statistical significance?

(A) 0.001

(B) 0.01

(D) 1.0

133. Which article of Indian Constitution
talks about the provision for early
childhood care and education?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 45
(C) Article 46
(D) Article 22

134. Early Childhood Care and Education is meant for children of which age
group?
(A) 2-6 years
(B) 3-7 years
(C) 3-6 years
(D) Below 6 years

135. Who is the founder of Kindergarten School?
(A) Maria Montessori
(B) William Heard Kilpatrick
(C) Friedrich Froebel
(D) Kieran Egan

136. Which one of the following explains the concept of universalisation of elementary education?
(A) Universal access, enrolment, and retention of children up to the age of 14
(B) Universal access, enrolment, retention and qualitative education up to the age of 14

(D) Universal enrolment, retention, and qualitative education up to the age of 14

137. Which of the following was the exact recommendation of NPE — 1986 relating to universalisation of elementary education?
(A) Every child of this country has a right to freeeducation until he completes the age of fourteen years
(B) The state shall endeavour to provide free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of 14 years
(C) Every citizen of this country has a right to free education until he completes the age of fourteen years
(D) It shall be ensured that free and compulsory education of satisfactory quality is provided to all children upto 14 years of age before we enter the twenty first century

138. According to the RTE Act; 2009, children of which age group will be provided free and compulsory education?
(A) 7 years to 14 years
(B) Up to l4 years
(C) 6 years to 14 years
(D) Up to 6 years

139. According to RTE Act, 2009, which of the following is correct relating to special provision for children not admitted to, or who have not completed, elementary education?

(A) Shall be admitted in a class appropriate to his or her age recommended by the Secondary
and can study till the age of Education Commission, 1952-53 fourteen
(B) Shall be admitted in a class be of 2 years duration appropriate to his or her grade and can study beyond the age of fourteen

(D) Shall be admitted in a class schools appropriate to his or her age and can study beyond the age of fourteen

140. In which year Sarva ShikshaAbhiyan was initiated?

(A) 2001

(B) 2005

(D) 2010

141. What is the present fund sharing pattern between Centre and State of Odisha for SSA?

(A) 50:50

(B) 20:80

(D) 60: 40

142. What duration was recommended by the Secondary Education Commission, 1952-53 for Secondary Education?

(A) 7 years

(B) 4 years

(D) 5 years

(B) 4 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 5years

143. Which of the following was not recommended by the Secondary Education Commission, 1952-53?
(A) Higher secondary education to be of 2 years
(B) Abolition of Intermediate classes
(C) Starting of technical schools in large number
(D) Establishment of multipurpose schools

144. Which of the following was not pointed out as a defect in the curriculum by the Secondary Education Commission, 1952-53

(A) Bookish and theoretical
(B) Does not cater to, the various needs and capacities adolescents

(C) Does not find room for technical and vocational education
(D) Not dominated by examination

145. Which was not recommended by Secondary Education Commission as a principle of curriculum construction?
(A) Subject centered
(B) Totality and experience
(C) Variety and elasticity
(D) Integration and correlation

146.Who was the Chairman of National Education Commission, 1964-

1966?

(A) S. Radhakrishnan

(B) D. S. Kothari

(D) L. S. Mudaliar

147. Which of the ‘following was not recommended by Education Commission, 1964-1966?

(A) Setting up of a large number of universities for achieving highest international standards

(B) Introduction of work experience at all levels of education

(D) Stress on moral education and inculcation of a sense of social responsibility

148. “Assessment of performance is an integral part of any process of learning and teaching. As part of sound educational strategy, examinations should be employed to bring about qualitative improvement in education”. This was recommended by which of following?

(A) Secondary Education Commission, 1952-53

(B) Education Commission, 1964-66

(D) University Education Commission, 1948-49

149. Which one of the following best explains the aims of peace education?

(A) Acquiring the values of friendliness and co-existence inside a class-room

(B) Developing values of respect and integrity

(D) Developing and nurturing cultural and traditional values among the students

150. In ‘which year the National Assessment and Accreditation Council was established?

(A) 1974

(B) 1994

(D) 1985

151. When one Higher Education Institution (HEI) becomes eligible for assessment and accreditation by NAAC?

(A) Having a record of at least three batches of students graduated or been in existence for six years, whichever is earlier

(B) Having a record of at least four batches of students graduated or been in existence for seven years, whichever is earlier

(C) Having a record of at least two batches of students graduated or been in existence for six years, whichever is earlier

(D) Having a record of at least one batch of students graduated or been in existence for five years, whichever is earlier

152. In which year Rashtriya Uchattar ShikshaAbhiyan was launched?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013

153. What is the institutional structure envisaged under RUSA at the centre?
(A) NMA, PAB, NPD, and SPG
(B) NMA,PAB, SPD ,and SPG
(C) NMA, PAB, NPD, and TSG
(D) SHEC, PAB, NPD, and SPG

154. What is the target of RUSA regarding
Gross Enrollment Ratio?
(A) 30%by2019-20
(B) 30%by2024-25
(C) 40% by 2019-20
(D) 40%by2024-25

155. What is the fund sharing pattern between Centre and General Category States under RUSA?
(A) 50:50
(B) 90:10
(C) 40:60
(D) 60:40

156. Who can be appointed as the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission of India?
(A) Any sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India

(B) Any sitting judge of a Court of any State
(C) Any retired Chief Justice Supreme Court of India
(D) Any retired Chief Justice High Court of any State

157. Which of the following is no function of National Human Right Commission of India?
(A) Providing economic compensation to the victims
(B) Protecting human right prisoners
(C) Undertaking research in field of human rights
(D) Requisitioning any Public record or copy thereof from court

158. Who was the first Chairperson National Human Rights Commission of India ?
(A) Justice Ranganath Mishra
(B) Justice J.S. Verma
(C) Justice H. L. Dattu
(D) Justice S. Rajendra Babu

159. Where and when Odisha Human Rights Commission was constituted?
(A) At Cuttack in 2000
(B) At Bhubaneswar in 2000
(C) At Cuttack in 1999

(E) At Bhubaneswar in 1999

160. When was the Universal Declaration
of Human Rights proclaimed?
(A) l0January, 1946
(B) 10 January, 1948
(C) 10 December, 1946
(D) 10 December, 1948

161. What is the current problem in integrating Life Skills into school curriculum?
(A) Teachers lack skills to integrate life skills into their class-room practices
(B) It demands the time and energy at the cost of main subjects
(C) Student-teacher ratio is imbalanced
(D) Parents don’t support the integration
162. What does an ecosystem consist of?
(A) Physical landscape
(B) Population
(C) Biotic community and the physical landscape
(D) Population and the physical landscape

163. Which of the following is a biotic
component of an ecosystem?
(A) Wind
(B) Fungi
(C) Water
(D) Temperature

164. Which of the following have been suggested by K. W. Thomas and R. H. Kilmann as five conflict management styles?
(A) Accommodating, Avoiding, Collaborating Cooperating and Compromising
(B) Accommodating, Avoiding, Asserting, Competing and Compromising
(C) Accommodating, Avoiding, Asserting, Cooperating and Compromising
(D) Accommodating, Avoiding, Collaborating, Competing and Corn promising

165. Which of the following best explains ICT in Education?
(A) The mode of education that use ICT to replace teachers in the class-rooms
(B) The mode of education that use ICT to develop computer knowledge
(C) The mode of education that use ICT to support, enhance, and optimize the delivery of information
(D) The mode of education that use ICT to develop vocational skills

For more info Please visit Official Website: http://www.ssbodisha.nic.in/

Answer Key Is availabe Now-
Check Out:

THE SCORING KEY TO INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS (SUBJECT WISE) OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION HELD ON (10.03.2019) ADV. NO.003/2018)

Question No	Answer Key
1	A
2	A
3	B
4	D
5	C
6	A
7	D
8	D
9	C
10	B
11	C
12	C
13	B
14	C
15	A
16	D
17	D
18	B
19	B
20	D
21	D
22	A
23	B
24	D
25	B
26	C
27	A
28	B
29	C
30	B
31	C
32	A
33	A
34	C
35	A
36	D
37	B
38	C
39	B
40	D
41	A
42	B
43	D
44	D
45	A
46	D
47	A
48	C
49	C

50	A
51	C
52	B
53	A
54	C
55	D
56	B
57	A
58	D
59	D
60	B
61	B
62	D
63	A
64	B
65	C
66	B
67	A
68	B
69	D
70	C
71	C
72	D
73	D
74	C
75	B
76	B
77	A
78	C
79	D
80	C
81	D
82	D
83	A
84	C
85	D
86	B
87	B
88	C
89	A
90	A
91	C
92	B
93	D
94	C
95	A
96	B
97	A
98	A
99	B
100	B
101	C
102	A
103	C
104	B
105	C
106	B
107	D
108	B
109	D
110	D
111	B
112	A
113	B
114	A
115	C
116	B
117	D
118	C
119	A
120	B
121	A
122	B
123	C
124	D
125	A
126	B
127	A
128	C
129	D
130	D
131	C
132	A
133	B
134	D
135	C
136	B
137	D
138	C
139	D
140	A
141	D
142	A
143	A
144	D
145	A
146	B
147	A
148	C
149	C
150	B
151	C
152	D
153	C
154	A
155	D
156	C
157	A
158	A
159	B
160	D
161	A
162	C
163	B
164	D
165	C

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Monday 11 March 2019

Written Examination on 10/03/2019(Sunday) for the Post of Lecturers

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