2010 June
1. Which
one of the following is the most important
quality of a good teacher ?
(A)
Punctuality and sincerity
(B)
Content mastery
(C) Content
mastery and reactive
(D)
Content mastery and sociable
Answer: (C)
2. The
primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The
children
(B) The
principal
(C) The
teacher himself
(D) The
community
Answer: (B)
3. As per
the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at
B.Ed. level?
(A) 1 +
7
(B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 +
10
(D) 1 + 5
Answer: (C)
4.
Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among
teachers is
(A)
Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive
behaviour
(C)
Fatigue
(D) Worry
Answer: (B)
(A)
Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B)
Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C)
Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D)
Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: (C)
6. A
successful teacher is one who is
(A)
Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite
and reactive
(C)
Tolerant and dominating
(D)
Passive and active
Answer: (A)
Read the
following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.
The phrase “What is it like?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How
does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy
segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face
of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such
thing as a complete description
of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s
surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the
things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that
occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed
in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess
language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images
of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced
because they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the
face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay
between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is
described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are
what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are
theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies.
It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in
the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they
perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of
things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the
mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must
be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from
the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated
observer is taught to accept a set of
concepts and then sharpens or changes these
concepts during a professional career. In any one field
of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are
acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.
7. The
problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A)
thought process
(B) human
behaviour
(C)
cultural perceptions
(D)
professional opinion
Answer: (C)
8. According
to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A)
Observation of things
(B)
Preparation of mental images
(C)
Expression through language
(D) To
gain knowledge
Answer: (B)
9. Concept
means
(A) A
mental image
(B) A
reality
(C) An
idea expressed in language form
(D) All
the above
Answer: (C)
10. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
Answer: (C)
11. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe
(B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body
(D) A Planet
Answer: (C)
12. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image
Answer: (B)
13. Action research means
(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective
Answer: (C)
14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of
any problem
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
15. A common test in research demands much priority on
(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
16. Which of the following is the first step in starting
the research process?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate
problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem
Answer: (A)
17. If a researcher conducts
a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to
institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
18. Normal Probability Curve should be
(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed
(D) Zero skewed
Answer: (D)
19. In communication, a major barrier to reception of
messages is
(A) audience attitude
(B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education
(D) audience income
Answer: (A)
(A) newspapers
(B) magazines
(C) radio
(D) television
Answer: (D)
21. Didactic communication is
(A) intra-personal
(B) inter-personal
(C) organisational
(D) relational
Answer: (B)
22. In
communication, the language is
(A) the
non-verbal code
(B) the
verbal code
(C) the
symbolic code
(D) the
iconic code
Answer: (B)
23.
Identify the correct sequence of the following:
(A)
Source, channel, message, receiver
(B)
Source, receiver, channel, message
(C)
Source, message, receiver, channel
(D)
Source, message, channel, receiver
Answer: (A)
24.
Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
(A) Both
(A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both
(A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is
true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both
(A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)
25. When
an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the
area of a square will be
(A)
0
(B) 1/2
(C)
1
(D) 2
Answer: (C)
26. On January
12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A)
Thursday
(B) Friday
(C)
Saturday
(D) Sunday
Answer: (B)
27. If
water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is
called world, which of the following grows a fruit?
(A)
Water
(B) Tree
(C)
World
(D) Earth
Answer: (C)
28. E is
the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How
is D related to E?
(A)
Brother
(B) Uncle
(C)
Father-in-law
(D)
Brother-in-law
Answer: (D)
29. If
INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded?
(A)
CADNIHWCE
(B)
HANODEINR
(C)
AENIRHDCN
(D)
ECNARDNIH
Answer: (D)
30. Find
the next number in the following series:
2, 5, 10,
17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A)
63
(B) 65
(C)
67
(D) 69
Answer: (B)
(A) God
created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is
the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of
God.
(C) Some
of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rama
is great because he is Rama.
Answer: (B)
32.
Lakshmana is a morally good person because
(A) he is
religious
(B) he is
educated
(C) he is
rich
(D) he is
rational
Answer: (D)
33. Two statements
I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the
statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow?
I. Some
religious people are morally good.
II. Some
religious people are rational.
Conclusions:
(a)
Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b)
Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.
(A) Only
(a) follows.
(B) Only
(b) follows.
(C) Both
(a) and (b) follow.
(D)
Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: (C)
34.
Certainty is
(A) an objective
fact
(B)
emotionally satisfying
(C)
logical
(D)
ontological
Answer: (B)
Questions
from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram
in which there are three intersecting circles I,
S and P where circle I stands for Indians,
circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the
figure are lettered from a to g.
35. The
region which represents non Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A)
f
(B) d
(C)
a
(D) c
Answer: (A)
36. The
region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.
(A)
b
(B) c
(C)
a
(D) d
Answer: (C)
37. The
population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic form
below:
Which of
the following inference can be drawn from above plot?
(A) The
population increases exponentially.
(B) The
population increases in parabolic fashion.
(C) The
population initially increases in a linear fashion and then stabilizes.
(D) The
population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.
Answer: (D)
In the
following chart, the price
of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw Timber in per
tones. Study the chart and answer the following questions 38, 39 and 40.
38. Which
product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period?
(A) Saw
timber
(B)
Plywood
(C) Log
(D) None
of the above
Answer: (A)
39. What
is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log ?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
Answer: (D)
40.
In which year the prices of two
products increased and that of the third
increased ?
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2006
Answer: (B)
41. Which one of the following
is the oldest Archival source of data in
India ?
(A) National Sample Surveys
(B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics
Answer: (A)
42. In a large random data set following normal
distribution, the ratio (%) of number of
data points which are in the range of
(mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points, is
(A) ~ 50%
(B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%
(D) ~ 47%
Answer: (B)
43. Which number system is usually followed in a
typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16
Answer: (B)
44. Which one of the following is an example of
Operating System?
(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access
(D) Microsoft Windows
Answer: (D)
45. Which one of the following represents the binary
equivalent of the decimal number 23?
(A) 01011
(B) 10111
(C) 10011
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
46. Which one of the following is different from other
members?
(A) Google
(B) Windows
(C) Linux
(D) Mac
Answer: (A)
47. Where does a computer add and compare its data?
(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Hard disk
(D) Floppy disk
Answer: (C)
48. Computers on an internet are identified by
(A) e-mail address
(B) street address
(C) IP address
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the
provision of
(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all
Public authorities to any person.
(B) Establishment of
Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public
authorities.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage
to property and lives?
(A) Hydrological
(B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical
Answer: (B)
51. Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics
Answer:
(D
52. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection programme
Answer: (A)
53. The main constituents of biogas are
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
Answer: (A)
54. Assertion (A): In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.
Reason (R): The population of the world has been
growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
55. Climate change has implications for
1. soil moisture
2. forest fires
3. biodiversity
4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the
code:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)
56. The accreditation process by National Assessment
and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from
that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there
is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the
other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the
institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive
decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum
standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.
Answer: (C)
57. Which option is not correct?
(A) Most of the educational institutions of National
repute in scientific and technical sphere fall
Under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of
concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was
first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and
Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th Constitutional
Amendment.
Answer: (C)
58. Which statement is not correct about the “National
Education Day” of India?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every
year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every
year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first
Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008
Answer: (A)
59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Articles of the
Constitution)
(Institutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union
level
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service
Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)
60. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section
3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue
degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any
institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus
anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without
the approval of the Distance Education Council
Answer: (C)
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